The Declaration of Independence says our rights are “unalienable”. Jefferson knew exactly what he was doing when he said that our rights are “unalienable”.
He could have used the word “inalienable” but he didn’t. “Unalienable” rights are rights that CANNOT under any circumstances be alienated. Under the definition for “Unalienable rights”, most law doctionaries say to see “Inalienable rights”. The reason that our rights are “unalienable” is because government officials have an oath of office, and it would be “perjury of oath” if they were to violate our rights.
That is exactly why the government attorneys appear and say that there is no contract – it is a nullity – it doesn’t exist.
Inalienable rights are rights that can be alienated by virtue of some contract. This is what the US Congress perjurers did with their Foreign Sovereign Immunity Act. The US Congress perjurers want you to think that the government has no responsibility towards you, so they can help out their owners. It is still perjury of oath.
Also, BAR members (foreign agents of the British Crown) are usually the author of law dictionaries, which is why they conveniently overlook the difference between unalienable rights and inalienable rights.
Most people are aware that “We the people” are sovereign in America.
“…at the revolution the Sovereignty devolved on the people; and they are truly the sovereigns of the country, but they are sovereigns without subjects ……and have none to govern but themselves; the citizens of America are equal as fellow citizens, and as joint tenants in the sovereignty.”
Chisholm v Georgia, 2 Dall. 440, at pg 471;
“The words “people of the United States” and “citizens” are synonymous terms, and mean the same thing. They both describe the political body who, according to our republican institutions, form the sovereignty, and who hold the power and conduct the Government through their representatives. They are what we familiarly call the “sovereign people,” and every citizen is one of this people, and a constituent member of the sovereignty.”
Dredd Scott v Sandford, 60 US 393, at pg 404;
So what does it mean to be sovereign? It means that you have all of the rights of the King.
“People of a state are entitled to all rights, which formerly belong to the King by his prerogative.” Lansing v Smith, (1829) 4 Wendell 9,20 (NY). “The people or sovereign are not bound by general word in statutes, restrictive of prerogative right, title or interest, unless expressly named. Acts of limitation do not bind the King or the people. The people have been ceded all the rights of the King, the former sovereign,…..It is a maxim of the common law, that when an act is made for the common good and to prevent injury, the King shall be bound, though not named, but when a statute is general and prerogative right would be divested or taken from the King (or the people) he shall not be bound.”
People v Herkimer, 4 Cowen (NY) 345, 348 (1825)
“It will be admitted on all hands that with the exception of the powers granted to the states and the federal government, through the Constitutions, the people of the several states are unconditionally sovereign within their respective states.”
Ohio L. Ins. & T. Co. v. Debolt, 16 How. 416, 14 L.Ed. 997.
Every nation on the planet, is a nation of Kings and Queens. Many people will find this hard to believe but the courts have affirmed this on numerous occasions. This is because of what is known as common law.
In fact, the courts have ruled that there is NOTHING that the government can do to affect “the people”.
“Sovereignty itself is, of course, not subject to law, for it is the author and source of law; …..”
Yick Wo v Hopkins, 118 US 356, at pg 370;
Inasmuch as every government is an artificial person, an abstraction, and a creature of the mind only, a government can interface only with other artificial persons. The imaginary, having neither actuality nor substance, is foreclosed from creating and attaining parity with the tangible. The legal manifestation of this is that no government, as well as any law, agency, aspect, court, etc. can concern itself with anything other than corporate, artificial persons, and the contracts between them.
Penhallow v. Doane’s Administraters 3 U.S. 54; 1 L.Ed. 57; 3 Dall. 54, (1795)
In fact the courts have also ruled that the ONLY authority held by the government is authority that is “delegated” by the people.
“…., while sovereign powers are delegated to the agencies of government, sovereignty itself remains with the people, by whom and for whom all government exists and acts.”
Yick Wo v Hopkins, 118 US 356, at pg 370;
The ONLY legitimate authority that any government has is delegated by “we the people”, so what does that mean?
Can I delegate to the government the authority to take some money from you and give it to the guy down the street because he is broke?
So how do they do it? There are 2 classes of citizens.
They do it by way of what the courts view as a contract, through our own ignorance. Much of it is our own fault, because of our own ignorance of the law and how it works, and it is as old as time itself.
Firstly, foreign agents infiltrated our government. 1917
Secondly, the foreign agents converted citizenship to the opposite of what the founding fathers intended.
Thirdly they passed color of law statutes.
Fourthly, we don’t know who we are.
of all the US Congress doesn’t have the authority to get you into some contract that violates your rights. The ONLY power they have is power “we the people” delegated, and cannot delegate to them the power to violate your rights.
the government cannot commmit treason. “We the people” created the government, and the government is a corporation. Treason is a breach of trust. A corporation CANNOT commit a breach of trust ONLY a living soul can do that.
Therefore, if there is anything that even remotely resembles a contract with the government, that violates the rights of the people, it is a nullity. It does not exist. I have seen government attorneys go into court and make that very statement.
• Did Justice (sic) Roberts Sell His Soul To The Devil: The 16th. Amendment Constitutionally Prohibits The IRS Taxing Personal Income Because One Does Not Purchase A Government Insurance & Is Therefore Legally Avoidable!
• Yes Roberts committed “Perjury Of Oath”
They make legal determinations for us, and we let them.
Any time, any law enforcement (revenue) officer comes up to us, he has made a legal determination. Without any authority whatsoever, he has decided that we are a “person”, because it is ONLY “persons” over which he has any authority.
They represent us without authority. It is impossible for them to make a legal determination for us without representing us.
By us making application for a drivers license, or a Social Security Number, we are giving them a power of attorney, and we have to revoke that Power of Attorney. It is with that Power of Attorney that they are making legal determinations for us.
Why are they passing color of law legislation?
The government is a corporation, and it has been bankrupt at least 3 times. If you go to Dunn & Bradstreet website and do a company search for “United States of America” in the District of Columbia, you will find a “UNITED STATES OF AMERICA4, CORP.” That means that the first 3 were liquidated in bankruptcy, and now were on number 4.
I expect that we will be on number 5 pretty soon because of the so-called financial crisis of 2008.
What happens when ANY corporation goes into bankruptcy?
Their stock becomes worthless and the creditors become the new owners. If it was FORD or GM,who cares because it doesn’t really affect us, but when it is the government, it is effectively a coup de tat. The ONLY thing that protects “We the People” is the fact that most government bureaucrats have an oath of office.
That is why they pass color of law legislation because their owners are requiring it. They still have an oath of office so this legislation is carefully worded such that it really applies to nobody, but if you are ignorant of the law and how it works you will end up being a source of revenue for the owners.
It is all about the money!
Why do you think you can plea bargain a court case? It is a commercial transaction – they just want to make some money. Most judges retire millionaires because they get a royalty from every admiralty maritime law court case they rule on. If it was the law that you had to pay some fine, it would NOT be negotiable.
Every court in the country is listed on Dunn & Bradstreet as a FOR PROFIT CORPORATION. They all charge filing fees and a big part of those filing fees is for errors and ommissions insurance for the so-called judges.
Think about it. If you go in there as a US citizen, you go into their courts with no rights, and you are making them money too! They can do anything they want because you can just appeal it, and even if they lose the insurance will cover it (pay you off).
It’s all in the name.
If you are in court, they ALWAYS spell your name in all block capital letters#. At common law, a proper name is NEVER spelled in all block capital letters. That is the US citizen or strawman. If you understand the law,…IT IS NOT YOU!
For anyone that is in jail, the judge is sitting up there making a bid bond, and the payment bond, and a performance bond. The judge is up there creating law merchant contracts by which the living soul is the surety for their fictitious entity.
Then they hold the living soul in the warehouse (jail) until the debt is paid by the International Monetary Fund. These bonds are circulated on Wall Street and the banksters also get into the act.
There are people who have found their criminal case number trading at Fidelity Investments worth millions of dollars. The judges and the prosecuting attorneys are making royalties off every case they do. It is just another form of Inquisition, and it has been going on for thousands of years.
They are getting the living soul to be a surety for their fictitious entity.